Input -> Fixed delay -> output. Delay time set to 0
The 100% wet signal does not seem identical to the 100% dry. I may be wrong I seem to be feeling / hearing a difference, if I had to pin it down I would say transient and dynamic range.
Is there a difference between direct audio without any processing and with the delay set to %100 wet with 0 delay?
Are they supposed to be bit perfect and therefore null, or is a difference expected?
I just did a very unscientific blind listening
test between wet and dry but scored 5/5.
Edit. Actually my “test” was far too casual to be useful so ignore that! I know better than to complety trust my ears.
But I would be curious to know if there is any possibility the numbers could be different.
edit 2. Occurred to me a simple test might help to see if I am imagining this. If I have channel 1 wet and channel 2 dry both processing the same audio signal from the same input, I think I am right that they should null. This is assuming that the delay module does not causes internal latency even when set to 100% wet.